The Gemara asks: Didn’t some of the people have status of those who immersed themselves during the day when they received the Torah? Some of the women immersed themselves on Shabbat evening to purify themselves from the discharge of semen. Even after immersion, the purification process is not complete until sunset. It was Abaye bar Ravin and Rav Ḥanina bar Avin who both said in response: The Torah was given to those who immersed themselves during the day, and that in no way diminishes the magnitude of the revelation. The Gemara relates that Mareimar sat and stated this halakha. Ravina said to Mareimar: Did you say that the Torah was actually given to those who immersed themselves during the day, or did you say that it was fit to be given to those who immersed themselves during the day, but, in reality, it was not? He said to him: I said that the Torah was fit to be given, but in actuality the nation was ritually pure, and the women did not discharge semen on the third day.

The Gemara asks: And let them immerse during twilight on Shabbat eve and receive the Torah just after that during twilight. Why was it necessary to delay revelation until Shabbat morning? Rabbi Yitzḥak said that the verse said in that regard: ''From the first, I did not speak in concealment'' (Isaiah 48:16). God did not give the Torah under the cloak of night, but rather in the light of day. The Gemara asks: And let them immerse themselves on Shabbat morning and receive the Torah on Shabbat morning. In that case, according to all opinions, the period of separation could have begun one twelve-hour period later. Rabbi Yitzḥak said: This was not done so that there would not be a situation where these, one segment of the people, would be going to receive the Torah while those, another segment of the people, would be going to immerse themselves. Optimally, the entire nation should go to receive the Torah together.

Rabbi Ḥiyya, son of Rabbi Abba, said that Rabbi Yoḥanan said: These are the statements of Rabbi Yishmael and Rabbi Akiva. However, the Rabbis say: We require that six complete twelve-hour periods elapse between cohabitation and discharge. If a woman discharged semen less than seventy-two hours after having relations, the semen renders her ritually impure. Rav Ḥisda said: The dispute over how long semen renders one ritually impure is only with regard to semen that is discharged from a woman; however, if it is discharged from a man, e.g., it was on a garment, it is impure as long as it is moist, regardless of how much time passed since its discharge. Rav Sheshet raises an objection based on what was taught in a baraita: The Torah states: ''And every garment, and every hide on which there is semen shall be immersed in water, and be impure until evening'' (Leviticus 15:17). And the Sages taught: This excludes semen which is foul. What, is it not referring to semen discharged from a man, indicating that even moist semen becomes foul after a certain period of time and no longer transmits impurity? The Gemara rejects this: No, this halakha is referring to semen that was discharged from a woman.

Rav Pappa raised a dilemma: What is the halakha with regard to semen of a Jew in the womb of a gentile woman? Do we say that since Jews are concerned about fulfilling mitzvot, due to that concern, their body temperature is hot and semen that is not absorbed becomes foul faster, in contrast to gentiles who are not concerned about fulfilling mitzvot for whom that is not the case? Or, perhaps, since gentiles eat detestable creatures and creeping animals their body temperature is also hot? And if you say that since they eat detestable creatures and creeping animals, their body temperature is hot, another dilemma can be raised: What is the halakha with regard to semen of a Jew in the womb of an animal? Do we say that in a woman, who has a long corridor [perozdor] to her womb, the semen becomes foul; but in an animal, which does not have as long a corridor, it does not? Or perhaps it is not different, and the period of time that the semen renders one ritually impure is the same in both cases? No resolution was found for these dilemmas. Therefore, let them stand unresolved.

The Sages taught: On the sixth day of the month of Sivan, the Ten Commandments were given to the Jewish people. Rabbi Yosei says: On the seventh day of the month. Rava said: Everyone agrees that the Jews came to the Sinai desert on the New Moon, as it is written here: ''In the third month after the children of Israel were gone forth out of the land of Egypt, the same day came they into the wilderness of Sinai'' (Exodus 19:1), without elaborating what day it was. And it is written there: ''This month shall be to you the beginning of months; it shall be the first month of the year to you'' (Exodus 12:2). Just as there, the term ''this'' is referring to the New Moon, so too, here the term is referring to the New Moon. And similarly, everyone agrees that the Torah was given to the Jewish people on Shabbat, as it is written here in the Ten Commandments: ''Remember the Shabbat day to keep it holy'' (Exodus 20:8), and it is written there: ''And Moses said to the people: Remember this day, in which you came out from Egypt, out of the house of bondage, for by strength of hand the Lord brought you out from this place; there shall be no leaven eaten'' (Exodus 13:3). Just as there, the mitzva of remembrance was commanded on the very day of the Exodus, so too, here the mitzva of remembrance was commanded on the very day of Shabbat. Where Rabbi Yosei and the Sages disagree is with regard to the determination of the month, meaning which day of the week was established as the New Moon. Rabbi Yosei held: The New Moon was established on the first day of the week, and on the first day of the week He did not say anything to them due to the weariness caused by the journey. On the second day of the week, He said to them: ''And you shall be to Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation; these are the words that you shall speak to the children of Israel'' (Exodus 19:6).